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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 2	Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.
Topic 3	Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.
Topic 4	Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q40-Q45):

NEW QUESTION # 40
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:

Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Answer: F

Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
* Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
* Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
* Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies
* CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management

NEW QUESTION # 41
A security review revealed that not all of the client proxy traffic is being captured. Which of the following architectural changes best enables the capture of traffic for analysis?

A. Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs
B. Enabling client device logging and system event auditing
C. Setting up a reverse proxy for client logging at the gateway
D. Adding an additional proxy server to each segmented VLAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs is the best architectural change to ensure that all client proxy traffic is captured for analysis. Here's why:
* Comprehensive Traffic Capture: A span port (or mirror port) on the perimeter firewall can capture all inbound and outbound traffic, including traffic that might bypass the proxy. This ensures that all network traffic is available for analysis.
* Centralized Logging: By capturing logs at the perimeter firewall, the organization can centralize logging and analysis, making it easier to detect and investigate anomalies.
* Minimal Disruption: Implementing a span port is a non-intrusive method that does not require significant changes to the network architecture, thus minimizing disruption to existing services.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-92: Guide to Computer Security Log Management
* OWASP Logging Cheat Sheet

NEW QUESTION # 42
An endpoint security engineer finds that a newly acquired company has a variety of non-standard applications running and no defined ownership for those applications. The engineer needs to find a solution that restricts malicious programs and software from running in that environment, while allowing the non-standard applications to function without interruption. Which of the following application control configurations should the engineer apply?

A. Deny list
B. MAC list
C. Audit mode
D. Allow list

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Option A: Deny list
Deny lists block specific applications or processes identified as malicious.
This approach is reactive and may inadvertently block the non-standard applications that are currently in use without proper ownership.
Option B: Allow list
Allow lists permit only pre-approved applications to run.
While secure, this approach requires defining all non-standard applications, which may disrupt operations in an environment where ownership is unclear.
Option C: Audit mode
Correct Answer.
Audit mode allows monitoring and logging of applications without enforcing restrictions.
This is ideal in environments with non-standard applications and undefined ownership because it enables the engineer to observe the environment and gradually implement control without interruption.
Audit mode provides critical visibility into the software landscape, ensuring that necessary applications remain functional.
Option D: MAC list
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) lists restrict access based on classification and clearance levels.
This does not align with application control objectives in this context.
Reference:
CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide - Chapters on Endpoint Security and Application Control.
CASP+ Objective 2.4: Implement appropriate security controls for enterprise endpoints.

NEW QUESTION # 43
Company A acquired Company B and needs to determine how the acquisition will impact the attack surface of the organization as a whole. Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal? (Select two).
Implementing DLP controls preventing sensitive data from leaving Company B's network

A. Reviewing the privacy policies currently adopted by Company B
B. Documenting third-party connections used by Company B
C. Performing an architectural review of Company B's network
D. Requiring data sensitivity labeling tor all files shared with Company B
E. Forcing a password reset requiring more stringent passwords for users on Company B's network

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
To determine how the acquisition of Company B will impact the attack surface, the following steps are crucial:
A . Documenting third-party connections used by Company B: Understanding all external connections is essential for assessing potential entry points for attackers and ensuring that these connections are secure.
E . Performing an architectural review of Company B's network: This review will identify vulnerabilities and assess the security posture of the acquired company's network, providing a comprehensive understanding of the new attack surface.
These actions will provide a clear picture of the security implications of the acquisition and help in developing a plan to mitigate any identified risks.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of understanding third-party connections and conducting architectural reviews during acquisitions.
NIST Special Publication 800-37, "Guide for Applying the Risk Management Framework to Federal Information Systems": Recommends comprehensive reviews and documentation of third-party connections.
"Mergers, Acquisitions, and Other Restructuring Activities" by Donald DePamphilis: Discusses the importance of security assessments during acquisitions.

NEW QUESTION # 44
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?

A. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel
B. Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process
C. Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant
D. Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
A . Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
B . Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
D . Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide" ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"

NEW QUESTION # 45
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100% PASS UNPARALLELED CAS-005 EXAM TESTKING & RELEVANT COMPTIA SECURITYX CERTIFICATION EXAM ANSWERS

100% Pass Unparalleled CAS-005 Exam Testking & Relevant CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Answers